MDCAT Leave a Comment / By sindheducationalorganization.org / October 20, 2025 Welcome to your MDCAT Name Email Phone 1. BIOLOGY Unit 01: Acellular Life 1. Viruses differ from living organisms because they: A) Can reproduce independently B) Lack cellular organization C) Possess both DNA and RNA D) Contain ribosomes for protein synthesis None 2. 2. The virus that causes AIDS contains: A) DNA as genetic material B) Double-stranded RNA C) Single-stranded RNA D) Both DNA and RNA None 3. 3. The mode of transmission of HIV includes: A) Sharing utensils B) Blood transfusion C) Insect bites D) Touching infected person None 4. 4. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect: A) Bacteria B) Plants C) Fungi D) Protozoa None 5. 5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses? A) They are obligate parasites B) They can be crystallized C) They contain genetic material D) They possess ribosomes None 6. Unit 02: Bioenergetics 6. The process of photosynthesis occurs mainly in the: A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplasts C) Nucleus D) Cytoplasm None 7. 7. Which pigment absorbs most light for photosynthesis? A) Xanthophyll B) Carotene C) Chlorophyll a D) Anthocyanin None 8. 8. In light-dependent reactions, oxygen is produced by: A) Reduction of CO₂ B) Photolysis of water C) Calvin cycle D) Electron transport in mitochondria None 9. 9. The Calvin cycle occurs in the: A) Thylakoid membrane B) Stroma of chloroplast C) Cytoplasm D) Grana None 10. 10. The rate of photosynthesis decreases when: A) Light intensity increases B) CO₂ concentration decreases C) Temperature is optimal D) Water supply is adequate None 11. Unit 03: Biological Molecules 11. The most abundant molecule in living organisms is: A) Glucose B) Protein C) Water D) Lipid None 12. 12. Sucrose is composed of: A) Glucose + Glucose B) Glucose + Fructose C) Glucose + Galactose D) Fructose + Galactose None 13. 13. The building blocks of proteins are: A) Fatty acids B) Amino acids C) Monosaccharides D) Nucleotides None 14. 14. Which of the following is a polysaccharide? A) Sucrose B) Maltose C) Glycogen D) Glucose None 15. 15. The phospholipid molecule is made up of: A) One glycerol + three fatty acids B) One glycerol + two fatty acids + phosphate group C) Two glycerols + phosphate D) One fatty acid + phosphate group None 16. 16. RNA differs from DNA because RNA: A) Contains uracil instead of thymine B) Has deoxyribose sugar C) Is double-stranded D) Has equal amounts of adenine and thymine None 17. 17. The conjugated molecule of carbohydrate and protein is called: A) Glycoprotein B) Lipoprotein C) Glycolipid D) Phosphoprotein None 18. Unit 04: Cell Structure and Function 18. The cell organelle responsible for energy production is: A) Mitochondrion B) Ribosome C) Golgi apparatus D) Lysosome None 19. 19. The plant cell differs from the animal cell because it has: A) Cell wall and chloroplasts B) Mitochondria C) Golgi apparatus D) Centrioles None 20. 20. Ribosomes are the site of: A) Protein synthesis B) Lipid synthesis C) Photosynthesis D) Respiration D) Respiration None 21. 21. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in: A) Protein synthesis B) Lipid synthesis C) ATP production D) DNA replication None 22. 22. Golgi apparatus functions in: A) ATP formation B) Ribosome assembly C) Packaging and secretion of materials D) Chromosome formation None 23. 23. Prokaryotic cells lack: A) True nucleus B) Ribosomes C) Cell membrane D) Cytoplasm None 24. Unit 05: Coordination and Control (Nervous and Chemical Coordination) 24. The structural and functional unit of the nervous system is: A) Neuron B) Axon C) Brain D) Synapse None 25. 25. The myelin sheath is formed by: A) Astrocytes B) Schwann cells C) Dendrites D) Synaptic knobs None 26. 26. The junction between two neurons is called: A) Dendrite B) Axon C) Synapse D) Soma None 27. 27. Reflex actions are controlled by the: A) Cerebrum B) Spinal cord C) Cerebellum D) Hypothalamus None 28. 28. The part of the brain responsible for maintaining balance is: A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Medulla oblongata D) Thalamus None 29. 29. The autonomic nervous system controls: A) Voluntary muscles B) Involuntary activities C) Skeletal movement D) Conscious actions None 30. 30. The function of the hypothalamus is to: A) Control balance B) Regulate body temperature and emotions C) Coordinate voluntary actions D) Control heart rate None 31. Unit 06: Diversity Among Animals (The Kingdom Animalia) 31. The animal kingdom is characterized by: A) Presence of cell wall B) Autotrophic mode of nutrition C) Multicellular, heterotrophic organisms D) Prokaryotic cell structure None 32. 32. Which of the following animals exhibits radial symmetry? A) Earthworm B) Human C) Hydra D) Fish None 33. 33. The body of a sponge has: A) Pores for water circulation B) Nematocysts C) Tentacles D) Flame cells None 34. 34. Which phylum includes animals with jointed appendages and exoskeleton? A) Mollusca B) Annelida C) Arthropoda D) Echinodermata None 35. 35. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of mammals? A) External fertilization B) Cold-blooded nature C) Presence of mammary glands D) Exoskeleton made of chitin None 36. Unit 07: Enzymes 36. Enzymes are chemically: A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Vitamins None 37. 37. The enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide is: A) Pepsin B) Catalase C) Lipase D) Urease None 38. 38. Enzyme activity is highly influenced by: A) Light intensity B) Temperature and pH C) Pressure only D) Electric field None 39. 39. A non-competitive inhibitor: A) Competes for the active site B) Binds to an allosteric site C) Increases enzyme affinity D) Acts as a coenzyme None 40. 40. The enzyme-substrate complex is formed at the: A) Active site B) Allosteric site C) Surface of ribosome D) Lysosomal membrane None 41. Unit 08: Evolution 41. The first life originated from non-living matter — this concept is known as: A) Special creation B) Abiogenesis C) Biogenesis D) Panspermia None 42. 42. Lamarck proposed that evolution occurs through: A) Natural selection B) Inheritance of acquired characters C) Genetic drift D) Mutation None 43. 43. According to Darwin, evolution occurs due to: A) Divine creation B) Use and disuse of organs C) Natural selection D) Inheritance of acquired traits None 44. 44. The “struggle for existence” is an important concept in: A) Lamarckism B) Darwinism C) Mutation theory D) Modern genetics None 45. 45. The theory of spontaneous generation was disproved by: A) Lamarck B) Louis Pasteur C) Darwin D) Mendel None 46. Unit 09: Prokaryotes (Kingdom Monera) 46. The cell wall of bacteria is made of: A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Peptidoglycan D) Glycogen None 47. 47. The shape of Bacillus bacteria is: A) Spherical B) Rod-shaped C) Spiral D) Comma-shaped None 48. 48. Which of the following bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into usable form? A) Clostridium botulinum B) Escherichia coli C) Rhizobium species D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis None 49. 49. Harmful bacteria can be controlled by: A) Vaccination only B) Exposure to sunlight C) Use of antibiotics D) High-fat diet None 50. 50. Which of the following is a photosynthetic bacterium? A) Streptococcus B) Salmonella C) Cyanobacteria D) Rhizobium None 51. Unit 10: Reproduction 51. The male reproductive organ that produces sperm is the: A) Prostate gland B) Vas deferens C) Testis D) Urethra None 52. 52. The hormone responsible for ovulation is: A) FSH B) LH C) Estrogen D) Progesterone None 53. 53. The menstrual cycle in females is controlled by: A) Thyroxine B) Pituitary and ovarian hormones C) Adrenal hormones D) Insulin and glucagon None 54. 54. The corpus luteum secretes: A) Estrogen only B) Progesterone C) FSH D) LH None 55. 55. AIDS is caused by: A) Bacteria B) Fungus C) Virus D) Protozoa None 56. 56. Gonorrhea is caused by: A) Treponema pallidum B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Mycobacterium leprae None 57. 57. Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction? A) Binary fission in Amoeba B) Fertilization in humans C) Spore formation in ferns D) Budding in Hydra None 58. Unit 11: Support & Movement 58. The main function of cartilage in the human body is: A) Transport of gases B) Provide flexible support C) Store minerals D) Produce enzymes None 59. 59. Compact bone contains numerous microscopic channels called: A) Canaliculi B) Haversian canals C) Lamellae D) Lacunae None 60. 60. The muscle responsible for involuntary movements like heartbeat is: A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Smooth muscle D) Voluntary muscle None 61. 61. The functional unit of a skeletal muscle is the: A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcomere C) Myofibril D) Myosin None 62. 62. The contraction of skeletal muscle requires: A) Sodium only B) Calcium and ATP C) Glucose only D) Oxygen only None 63. Unit 12: Inheritance 63. According to Mendel’s law of segregation, each individual has: A) One allele for each gene B) Two alleles for each gene C) Multiple alleles for each trait D) No allele for recessive traits None 64. 64. When two genes are located on the same chromosome, they are said to be: A) Independent B) Linked C) Mutated D) Recessive None 65. 65. Hemophilia is an example of: A) Autosomal dominant trait B) Sex-linked recessive trait C) Codominant trait D) Polygenic trait None 66. Unit 13–16: Plants, Circulation, Immunity & Respiration 66. Water moves upward through xylem mainly due to: A) Root pressure B) Capillary action C) Transpiration pull D) Osmosis only None 67. 67. The human heart consists of: A) Two chambers B) Three chambers C) Four chambers D) Five chambers None 68. 68. Arteries are different from veins because they: A) Carry blood away from the heart B) Contain valves C) Have thinner walls D) Carry deoxygenated blood None 69. CHEMISTRY Unit 01: Fundamental Concepts of Chemistry 1. The mole is defined as the amount of substance that contains: A) 6.02 × 10¹⁸ atoms B) 6.02 × 10²³ entities C) 1 gram of atoms D) 12 grams of carbon None 70. 2. One mole of a gas at STP occupies: A) 11.2 L B) 22.24 cm³ C) 22.4 L D) 1 L None 71. 3. The limiting reagent in a reaction: A) Is present in excess B) Determines the amount of product formed C) Does not react D) Has no effect on yield None 72. 4. Theoretical yield is: A) The maximum amount of product predicted from stoichiometry B) The actual yield obtained C) The yield after reaction completion D) The percentage yield None 73. 5. Percentage yield = A) (Actual / Theoretical) × 100 B) (Actual yield ÷ Theoretical yield) × 100 C) (Theoretical ÷ Actual) × 100 D) (Product ÷ Reactant) × 100 None 74. Unit 02: Atomic Structure 6. Photon is a: A) Particle of matter B) Quantum of radiation energy C) Charged atom D) Subatomic particle None 75. 7. The shape of a p-orbital is: A) Spherical B) Dumbbell-shaped C) Circular D) Linear None 76. 8. The principal quantum number represents: A) The main energy level of an electron B) The orientation of orbital C) Spin of electron D) Shape of orbital None 77. 9. Hund’s Rule states that: A) Electrons fill lowest energy orbitals first B) Electrons occupy separate orbitals before pairing C) Two electrons cannot have same quantum numbers D) Electrons fill orbitals randomly None 78. 10. The electronic configuration of oxygen is: A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁴ 3s² B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁴ C) 1s² 2s² 2p³ D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ None 79. Unit 03: Gases 11. According to kinetic molecular theory, gas molecules: A) Attract each other strongly B) Move randomly and continuously C) Are at rest at 0°C D) Have negligible volume and mass None 80. 12. At STP, the temperature is: A) 0°F B) 273 K C) 298 K D) 100°C None 81. 13. According to Boyle’s law, at constant temperature: A) Pressure is inversely proportional to volume B) Pressure is directly proportional to volume C) Volume is directly proportional to temperature D) Pressure is constant None 82. 14. Charles’ Law states that: A) Volume is directly proportional to temperature at constant pressure B) Volume decreases with increase in temperature C) Pressure is constant D) Temperature decreases with increase in pressure None 83. 15. The behavior of gases deviates from ideal gas law at: A) Low pressure and high temperature B) High pressure and low temperature C) STP D) High temperature and pressure None 84. Unit 04: Liquids 16. Liquids are: A) Highly compressible B) Slightly compressible C) Not compressible at all D) As compressible as gases None 85. 17. The diffusion in liquids is: A) Faster than in gases B) Slower than in gases C) Equal to gases D) Negligible None 86. 18. Hydrogen bonding is strongest in: A) H₂S B) HF C) CH₄ D) CO₂ None 87. 19. Water has maximum density at: A) 0°C B) 4°C C) 10°C D) 100°C None 88. 20. Vapor pressure of a liquid increases with: A) Decrease in temperature B) Increase in temperature C) Increase in surface area D) Increase in pressure None 89. Unit 05: Solids 21. A crystalline solid has: A) Random arrangement of particles B) Regular geometric pattern C) No definite shape D) Amorphous form None 90. 22. Lattice energy is defined as: A) The energy released when gaseous ions form an ionic solid B) Energy absorbed in melting C) Energy required to vaporize D) Heat of combustion None 91. 23. The shape of an ionic crystal depends on: A) Mass of ions B) Size and charge of ions C) Temperature D) Density None 92. 24. Ionic solids are: A) Soft and low melting B) Hard and high melting C) Volatile D) Poor conductors in molten state None 93. 25. Molecular solids are held together by: A) Van der Waals forces B) Metallic bonds C) Ionic bonds D) Covalent bonds None 94. Unit 06: Chemical Equilibrium 26. Chemical equilibrium is a state in which: A) Forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates B) Reactions stop completely C) Reactants are completely converted D) Only products remain None 95. 27. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, increasing temperature in an exothermic reaction: A) Shifts equilibrium to the left B) Shifts equilibrium to the right C) Has no effect D) Doubles rate constant None 96. 28. Common ion effect is observed in: A) Weak electrolyte solutions B) Strong acids C) Metallic compounds D) Neutral salts None 97. 29. A buffer solution resists change in: A) Concentration B) pH C) Temperature D) Pressure None 98. 30. Ammonia is manufactured by: A) Haber’s Process B) Ostwald’s Process C) Contact Process D) Solvay Process None 99. Unit 07: Reaction Kinetics 31. The rate of reaction depends on: A) Catalyst only B) Concentration, temperature, and surface area C) Pressure only D) Color of reactants None 100. 32. Activation energy is the: A) Minimum energy required for a reaction to occur B) Maximum energy released C) Energy of products D) Energy of catalyst None 101. 33. Catalyst increases rate of reaction by: A) Increasing temperature B) Lowering activation energy C) Changing reactants D) Absorbing energy None 102. 34. The rate constant depends on: A) Concentration B) Temperature C) Volume D) Pressure None 103. 35. A reaction is zero order if: A) Rate is independent of reactant concentration B) Rate doubles when concentration doubles C) Rate depends on time D) Activation energy is zero None 104. Unit 08: Thermochemistry 36. Exothermic reactions: A) Release heat energy B) Absorb heat C) Have positive enthalpy D) Are non-spontaneous None 105. 37. Endothermic reactions have: A) Negative ∆H B) Positive ∆H C) Zero ∆H D) Constant ∆H None 106. 38. First law of thermodynamics states that: A) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed B) Energy is always lost C) Energy changes into mass D) Heat cannot flow between bodies None 107. 39. Hess’s Law states that: A) Enthalpy change is independent of path taken B) Energy depends on path C) Reaction rate is constant D) ∆H = ∆U – P∆V None 108. 40. The unit of heat energy in SI is: A) Calorie B) Joule C) Kelvin D) Erg None 109. Unit 09: Electrochemistry 41. Oxidation involves: A) Loss of electrons B) Gain of electrons C) Decrease in oxidation number D) Reduction None 110. 42. In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at: A) Anode B) Cathode C) Both electrodes D) Salt bridge None 111. 43. Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is assigned a potential of: A) 0.00 V B) 1.00 V C) 2.30 V D) -1.00 V None 112. 44. The electrode where reduction takes place is called: A) Anode B) Cathode C) Electrolyte D) Diode None 113. 45. The sum of oxidation and reduction potentials gives: A) Cell potential B) Activation energy C) Work function D) Ionization potential None 114. Unit 10: Chemical Bonding 46. Sigma bond is formed by: A) Head-on overlap of orbitals B) Sidewise overlap C) Ionic interaction D) Hydrogen bonding None 115. 47. The shape of CH₄ molecule according to VSEPR theory is: A) Trigonal planar B) Tetrahedral C) Pyramidal D) Linear None 116. 48. The polarity of a molecule depends on: A) Molar mass B) Difference in electronegativity and shape C) Size of atom D) Number of bonds None 117. 49. Bond energy is: A) Energy required to break one mole of bonds B) Energy released on bond formation C) Kinetic energy of atoms D) Lattice energy None 118. 50. Ionic character increases with: A) Equal electronegativity B) Greater difference in electronegativity C) Similar atomic radii D) Nonpolar covalent bonds None 119. Unit 11–19: Elements & Organic Chemistry 51. Group I elements react with water to form: A) Alkaline hydroxides and hydrogen gas B) Acids C) Salts and CO₂ D) Peroxides None 120. 52. Functional group in alcohols is: A) –COOH B) –OH C) –CHO D) –C=O None 121. 53. The general formula for alkenes is: A) C H₂ ₊₂ B) C H₂ C) C H₂ ₋₂ D) C H None 122. 54. Benzene undergoes: A) Addition reaction B) Electrophilic substitution C) Elimination D) Neutralization None 123. PHYSICS Unit 01: Force and Motion (1–8) 1. The slope of a displacement-time graph represents: A) Acceleration B) Distance C) Velocity D) Momentum None 124. 2. The rate of change of velocity is called: A) Displacement B) Acceleration C) Force D) Momentum None 125. 3. A body moving with constant acceleration has: A) Constant velocity B) Uniformly changing velocity C) Increasing acceleration D) Decreasing speed None 126. 4. Projectile motion is an example of: A) One-dimensional motion B) Two-dimensional motion C) Rotational motion D) Translational motion None 127. 5. In the absence of air resistance, the horizontal component of velocity in projectile motion is: A) Increasing B) Constant C) Decreasing D) Zero None 128. 6. The path followed by a projectile is called: A) Parabola B) Hyperbola C) Circle D) Ellipse None 129. 7. Momentum of a body is the product of: A) Force and acceleration B) Mass and velocity C) Energy and time D) Weight and distance None 130. 8. The law of conservation of momentum is valid for: A) Elastic collisions only B) Both elastic and inelastic collisions C) Explosive reactions only D) Stationary bodies None 131. Unit 02: Work and Energy (9–13) 9. Work is said to be done when: A) Force is applied without displacement B) Force causes displacement C) No motion occurs D) Displacement is perpendicular to force None 132. 10. The SI unit of work is: A) Joule B) Newton C) Watt D) Calorie None 133. 11. Energy possessed by a moving object is: A) Kinetic energy B) Potential energy C) Elastic energy D) Chemical energy None 134. 12. Gravitational potential energy depends on: A) Velocity only B) Height and mass C) Time D) Force None 135. 13. Power is defined as: A) Force per displacement B) Energy × Time C) Work done per unit time D) Mass × Acceleration None 136. Unit 03: Rotational and Circular Motion (14–18) 14. One radian is equal to: A) 90° B) 57.3° C) 180° D) 360° None 137. 15. The relation between linear velocity (v) and angular velocity (ω) is: A) v = rω B) v = ω/r C) ω = r/v D) r = vω None 138. 16. The SI unit of angular velocity is: A) Radian B) Radian per second C) Degree D) Cycle None 139. 17. Centripetal force acts: A) Tangentially to the motion B) Away from the center C) Toward the center D) Perpendicular to radius None 140. 18. Moment of inertia depends on: A) Mass distribution about the axis B) Temperature C) Linear velocity D) Volume None 141. Unit 04: Waves (19–25) 19. Waves which require a medium for propagation are: A) Mechanical waves B) Electromagnetic waves C) X-rays D) Gamma rays None 142. 20. The distance between two successive crests is: A) Amplitude B) Wavelength C) Frequency D) Period None 143. 21. The number of waves passing a point per second is called: A) Frequency B) Velocity C) Amplitude D) Phase None 144. 22. The speed of a wave is the product of: A) Frequency and wavelength B) Amplitude and time C) Frequency and time D) Force and distance None 145. 23. The points of zero displacement in stationary waves are: A) Nodes B) Antinodes C) Crests D) Troughs None 146. 24. Interference of sound waves is based on: A) Principle of superposition B) Law of reflection C) Newton’s law D) Ohm’s law None 147. 25. Stationary waves are formed when: A) Two identical waves move in opposite directions B) Different frequency waves overlap C) Light is reflected D) Waves move in same direction None 148. Unit 05: Thermodynamics (26–30) 26. Heat flows from: A) Higher to lower temperature B) Lower to higher temperature C) Solid to gas D) Gas to solid None 149. 27. The first law of thermodynamics deals with: A) Conservation of energy B) Conservation of momentum C) Specific heat D) Entropy None 150. 28. The SI unit of heat is: A) Joule B) Watt C) Calorie D) Kelvin None 151. 29. Work done by a gas during expansion is: A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Infinite None 152. 30. Specific heat capacity is: A) Heat required to raise unit mass by 1°C B) Energy required to boil water C) Heat to melt a solid D) Heat to vaporize a liquid None 153. Unit 06: Electrostatics (31–35) 31. Coulomb’s law gives the force between: A) Two point charges B) Two masses C) Magnetic poles D) Moving electrons None 154. 32. The SI unit of electric charge is: A) Coulomb B) Volt C) Ampere D) Farad None 155. 33. The electric field is a: A) Scalar quantity B) Vector quantity C) Tensor quantity D) Dimensionless None 156. 34. Electric potential at a point is defined as: A) Work done per unit positive charge B) Force per charge C) Energy per mass D) Current × resistance None 157. 35. In a parallel plate capacitor, capacitance increases if: A) Plate separation decreases B) Voltage increases C) Charge decreases D) Area decreases None 158. Unit 07: Current Electricity (36–40) 36. Ohm’s law states that: A) V = IR B) P = IV C) V = I/R D) I = VR None 159. 37. The SI unit of resistance is: A) Ohm (Ω) B) Ampere C) Volt D) Joule None 160. 38. Power in an electrical circuit is given by: A) P = VI B) P = IR C) P = I²R² D) P = R/V None 161. 39. Resistance of a wire increases with: A) Increase in temperature B) Decrease in length C) Increase in thickness D) Cooling None 162. 40. The condition for maximum power transfer is: A) Load resistance = internal resistance B) Load > internal C) Load < internal D) None None 163. Unit 08–09: Electromagnetism & Induction (41–45) 41. Magnetic flux is given by: A) Φ = B·A B) Φ = BA² C) Φ = B/A D) Φ = A/B None 164. 42. Unit of magnetic flux is: A) Weber (Wb) B) Tesla C) Coulomb D) Ampere None 165. 43. Faraday’s law deals with: A) Electromagnetic induction B) Electrostatics C) Capacitance D) Wave motion None 166. 44. Lenz’s law is based on the principle of: A) Conservation of energy B) Conservation of momentum C) Conservation of charge D) Conservation of mass None 167. 45. A step-up transformer increases: A) Voltage B) Current C) Power D) Resistance None 168. Unit 10–12: Electronics & Modern Physics (46–50) 46. Diodes are used for: A) Rectification B) Amplification C) Modulation D) Filtration None 169. 47. A photon’s energy is given by: A) E = hf B) E = mc² C) E = ½mv² D) E = h/c 48 None 170. 48. The spectrum consisting of bright colored lines is called: A) Emission spectrum B) Absorption spectrum C) Continuous spectrum D) X-ray spectrum None 171. 49. Atomic spectra provide evidence for: A) Quantized energy levels B) Uniform energy distribution C) Wave theory of light D) Law of reflection None 172. 50. The photoelectric effect demonstrates: A) Particle nature of light B) Wave nature of light C) Diffraction D) Refraction None 173. Unit 13: Nuclear Physics (51–54) 51. The nucleus contains: A) Protons and neutrons B) Electrons and protons C) Neutrons only D) Electrons only None 174. 52. The process of random decay of unstable nuclei is called: A) Radioactivity B) Fission C) Fusion D) Ionization None 175. 53. Half-life is defined as: A) Time required for half nuclei to decay B) Time to double activity C) Energy per atom D) Decay constant None 176. 54. Lenz’s law and Faraday’s law are related by: A) Direction of induced emf opposes change B) Current flows with change C) Voltage remains constant D) Power is maximum None 177. ENGLISH SECTION 1. Choose the correct synonym of the word “Vivid”. A) Dull B) Bright C) Weak D) Simple None 178. Antonym 2. Which of the following is the antonym of “Scarce”? A) Rare B) Abundant C) Absent D) Deficient None 179. 3. Identify the correct sentence: A) She don’t like mangoes. B) She doesn’t likes mangoes. C) She doesn't like mangoes. D) She not like mangoes. None 180. 4. Choose the correct preposition: He is good ___ mathematics. A) in B) at C) for D) on None 181. 5. Select the sentence with correct punctuation: A) Ali said “I am tired”. B) Ali said, “I am tired.” C) Ali said, I am tired. D) Ali said, “I am tired”. None 182. 6. Choose the correct article: He is ___ honest man. A) a B) an C) the D) no article None 183. 7. Identify the correct subject-verb agreement: A) The list of items are long. B) The list of items is long. C) The lists of item are long. D) The list of item are long. None 184. 8. Which sentence is in the past perfect tense? A) She will finish her homework. B) She is finishing her homework. C) She had finished her homework. D) She finishes her homework. None 185. 9. Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: She was too tired ___ continue. A) to B) for C) so D) than None 186. 10. Choose the correctly spelled word A) Definately B) Definitely C) Defanitely D) Definetly None 187. 11. Choose the correct homophone: The ___ of the movie was very exciting. A) scene B) seen C) sign D) sine None 188. 12. Identify the incorrect sentence: A) He has gone to school. B) She is watching TV. C) They goes to market every day. D) I like reading books. None 189. 13. Choose the correct tense form: By next year, they ___ the new bridge. A) completed B) will complete C) have completed D) will have completed None 190. 14. Select the correct word order: A) She always is punctual. B) Always she is punctual. C) She is always punctual. D) She punctual is always. None 191. 15. Which of the following sentences uses capitalization correctly? A) my Father works in a bank. B) My father works in a bank. C) My Father Works In A Bank. D) my father Works in A Bank. None 192. 16. Choose the appropriate response: “What are you doing?” A) I do my homework. B) I done my homework. C) I am doing my homework. D) I was doing my homework. None 193. 17. Choose the correct punctuation: Which of these is a question? A) He is coming home. B) He is coming home? C) Is he coming home? D) Coming home he is? None 194. 18. Select the correct preposition: The cat jumped ___ the table. A) in B) on C) into D) from None 195. LOGICAL REASONING SECTION 1. Complete the series: A, C, F, J, O, ? A) S B) T C) U D) V None 196. 2. If some roses are red and all red things are beautiful, which conclusion follows? A) All roses are beautiful. B) Some roses are beautiful. C) No roses are beautiful. D) None of the above. None 197. 3. Find the next number in the sequence: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ? A) 36 B) 40 C) 42 D) 48 None 198. 4. Statement: Pollution levels are increasing rapidly in cities. Course of action: (i) Strict laws should be enforced against polluters. (ii) People should be educated about environmental protection. A) Only (i) follows B) Only (ii) follows C) Both (i) and (ii) follow D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows None 199. 5. Cause: Heavy rainfall caused flooding in many areas. Effect: People had to evacuate their homes. A) Cause and effect are related B) Cause and effect are unrelated C) Both are effects of a common cause D) Both are independent events None 200. 6. If SISTER is coded as RHRSDQ, how is BROTHER coded? A) AQNSGFD B) AQMSGDQ C) AQMSFQD D) AQMSFDR None Time's up
